Read the most frequently asked 50 top Psychology multiple choice questions and answers PDF for freshers and experienced. Psychology objective questions and answers pdf download free..
Psychology Multiple Choice Questions and Answers PDF Experienced Freshers
1. According to Erik Erikson, the major developmental task during adolescence is to achieve a sense of
a) Competence
b) Responsibility
c) Integrity
d) Identity
e) Intimacy
Answer - d
2. Current research suggests that a sense of self-efficacy is most likely to be associated with
a) A high degree of social compliance
b) A low threshold for emotional arousal
c) A stable external attribution style
d) An external locus of control
e) An internal locus of control
Answer - e
3. This past year Donna was promoted from eighth to ninth grade and was assigned a new school locker with a new combination. Donna has found that she has trouble remembering her new combination because it is similar to her old one. The memory problem Donna is experiencing is most probably a result of
a) Sensory memory decay
b) Proactive interference
c) Retroactive interference
d) State-dependent memory
e) Encoding failure
Answer - b
4. The concept of functional fixedness refers to the fact that
a) Experts solve problems intuitively while beginners solve them by trial and error
b) Solutions to problems often occur suddenly after an incubation period
c) Individuals differ in their ability to visualize how objects will appear when rotated in space
d) Individuals often do not see unusual uses or applications for familiar objects
e) Learning under partial reinforcement is very resistant to extinction
Answer - d
5. Which of the following illustrates a variable ratio schedule of reinforcement?
a) Receiving five dollars weekly for completing household chores
b) Receiving a grade of A on every paper submitted in a course
c) Winning the lottery after playing many times
d) Receiving a dollar for each mile completed in a charity walkathon
e) Being given increased use of the family car after reaching age 18
Answer - c
6. During REM sleep, which of the following is most likely to occur?
a) Slowed respiration
b) Sleepwalking
c) Stable blood pressure
d) Decreased heart rate
e) Suppressed muscle tone
Answer - e
7. Visual negative afterimages are one result of
a) Sensory adaptation
b) Simultaneous contrast
c) Spatial summation
d) Brightness oversensitivity
e) Color intensity
Answer - a
8. Which part of the cerebral cortex receives information about temperature, pressure, touch, and pain?
a) Motor cortex
b) Prefrontal cortex
c) Temporal lobe
d) Occipital lobe
e) Parietal lobe
Answer - e
9. The region of the brain most involved in the experience of emotions is the
a) Cerebellum
b) Basal ganglia
c) Limbic system
d) Reticular activating system
e) Parasympathetic nervous system
Answer - c
10. In psychology, which of the following is most appropriate for identifying cause and effect?
a) Participant observation
b) Survey methodology
c) The case study
d) Experimentation
e) Co-relational techniques
Answer - d
11. In which of the following Piagetian stages are, propositional reasoning most likely to be used?
a) Secondary circular reactions
b) Preoperational
c) Formal operations
d) Concrete operations
e) Internalization of schemes
Answer - c
12. According to psychoanalytic theory, one of the important functions of the ego is to
a) Facilitate gratification of desires at an appropriate time
b) Govern behavior prior to the development of the superego and the id
c) Achieve immediate gratification of desires
d) Satisfy the demands of the superego
e) Act as the conscience of the individual
Answer - a
13. Which of the following best illustrates a humanistic approach to personality?
a) Establishing gender schema in the development of sex roles
b) Recognizing the importance of unconscious forces and biological instincts
c) Using functional analyses to specify external variables that regulate behavior
d) Emphasizing personal growth and achievement of individual potential
e) Exploring the childhood roots of behavior
Answer - d
14. The reliability of a test, is best indicated by which of the following?
a) The difficulty of the test for the intended population of test takers
b) The spread of scores on the test
c) The extent to which scores on the test correlate with a different measure of performance
d) The degree to which scores on the test form a normal distribution
e) The consistency of scores on repeated administrations of the test
Answer - e
15. Which of the following sets of numbers has the largest standard deviation?
a) –2, –1, 0, +1, +2
b) 1.00, 1.25, 1.50, 1.75, 2.00, 2.25, 2.50, 2.75, 3.00
c) 2, 6, 10, 14, 18
d) 5.756, 5.765, 5.890, 5.895, 5.923
e) 91, 92, 93, 94, 95
Answer - c
16. An individual, who experiences major distortions of reality, is most likely suffering from which of the following types of disorders.
a) Anxiety
b) Mood
c) Adjustment
d) Schizophrenic
e) Bipolar
Answer - d
17. A person with agoraphobia is best described as an individual who
a) Displays suicidal behavior in stressful situations
b) Shows little regard for social norms
c) Suffers from an irrational fear and avoidance of public places
d) Suffers from chronic fatigue and paranoia in social situations
e) Shows excessive mood swings without warning
Answer - c
18. Person-(client) centered the rapists are most likely to use which of the following modes of treatment?
a) Intra-psychic therapy
b) Unconditional positive regard
c) Drug therapy
d) Counter transference
e) Transactional analysis
Answer - b
19. With which of the following would a cognitively oriented therapist most likely be concerned?
a) The number of negative self-statements made by the patient
b) The temperament of the patient as a child
c) The number of individuals in the patient’s household
d) The physiological makeup of the patient
e) The responses made by the patient on a projective test
Answer - a
20. Social learning experiments on the modeling of aggressive behavior have demonstrated that
a) Children are not affected by watching violence on television
b) Abusive parenting accounts for most children’s aggressive acts
c) Children can develop aggressive behavior simply by watching others perform aggressive acts
d) Children’s aggressive behavior must be reinforced for it to be repeated
e) Children imitate aggressive behavior seen on television only if the media violence is performed by children
Answer - c
21. Ion channels in ventricular myocytes:
a) Are highly specialized phospholipids molecules.
b) Extend from one side of the cell to the other.
c) Let any substance pass through, so long as it is an ion.
d) Stay open for several seconds at a time.
e) Are generally controlled by the voltage across the membrane
Answer - e
22. A class of ion passes through an open channel:
a) When there is an electrochemical gradient for this ion across the membrane.
b) Because ion pumps transport the ion across the membrane
c) Because the selectivity filter conducts the ion through it.
d) Because other ions of the same class link up together, and drag the ion with it.
e) Because the voltage gates act as paddles, to sweep the ions through
Answer - a
23. A voltage-gated ion channel in a ventricular myocyte:
a) Usually has a single gate that opens and closes.
b) Sometimes, have two gates that open and close together.
c) Is always closed when the cell is resting
d) Selects the type of ion that passes across the membrane
e) Usually close when the membrane potential depolarizes.
Answer - d
24. Pulmonary surfactant:
a) Prevents large alveoli from emptying into smaller alveoli
b) Prevents forced expiratory efforts from emptying the alveoli.
c) Increases the filtration of fluid from pulmonary capillaries into the alveoli.
d) Prevents small alveoli from emptying into large alveoli
e) Keeps the lungs and thoracic wall together
Answer - d
25. Concerning the flow rate of air into or out of the lungs:
a) The greater the effort of inspiration, the greater the flow rate
b) The greater the effort of expiration, the greater the flow rate, particularly at low lung volumes.
c) Expired air flows fastest at lung volumes near residual volume.
d) The greatest overall resistance to airflow occurs at the level of the narrowest bronchioles.
e) Radial traction increases the resistance to airflow during inspiration.
Answer - a
26. Compliance:
a) Has the units of cm water pressure per ml of air
b) Is the change in volume for a given change in pressure?
c) Has the units of cm water pressure per ml of air per minute
d) Of the human lung can only be measured when the lung has been removed from the body.
e) Is decreased by an increased airways resistance
Answer - b
27. The increase in tidal volume during dynamic exercise:
a) Increases the expiratory reserve and inspiratory reserve volumes
b) Increases linearly with work rate, up to about 5 L
c) Is caused by recruitment of motor units in the muscles of breathing
d) Is 10 times the resting tidal volume
e) Is 10 times the vital capacity
Answer - c
28. During physical exercise:
a) Parasympathetic stimulation increases blood flow to active skeletal muscle.
b) Vasodilatation occurs in all organs.
c) Sympathetic stimulation vasoconstricts the coronary circulation
d) Sympathetic nerve fibers supplying the viscera are inhibited.
e) The duration of ventricular diastole is shortened considerably, compared to the duration of systole.
Answer - e
29. During an endurance event:
a) Heart rate could increase by 200 beats per minute.
b) Stroke volume could increase by about 100 ml.
c) Cardiac output would increase only when the air temperature increased.
d) It takes several minutes from the start of the event, for the heart rate to increase.
e) Total peripheral resistance decreases.
Answer - e
30. The blood flow through active skeletal muscle:
a) Is phasic
b) Increases primarily due to sympathetic vasodilatation in skeletal muscle blood vessels
c) Increases only because mean arterial pressure increases.
d) Increases during contraction, and decreases during relaxation
e) Occurs at the same rate as blood flow through resting muscle
Answer - a
31. Which of the following values obtained during dynamic exercise could be considered abnormal?
a) A heart rate of 150 BPM
b) A cardiac output of 20 L/min
c) A stroke volume of 100 ml
d) A diastolic arterial blood pressure of 80 mmHg
e) A systolic blood pressure of 80 mmHg
Answer – e
32. In a physically trained person:
a) Heart rate can reach higher levels than in an untrained person exercising at an equivalent workload.
b) Stroke volume is greater than in an untrained person.
c) Vagal tone is lower than in an untrained person.
d) Vascular resistance is lower than in an untrained person.
e) Left ventricular end-diastolic volume is less than in an untrained person.
Answer - b
33. In a typical capillary the:
a) Pressure at the venous end exceeds that at the arterial end.
b) Radius exceeds that of a typical arteriole.
c) Tension in the wall increases as the hydrostatic pressure rises.
d) Radius is more than three times as great as the radius of a red blood cell.
e) Tension in the wall is proportional to the fourth power of the radius.
Answer - c
34. If the heart of a resting normal person is increased from 60 to 90 beats per minute by artificial atrial pacing:
a) Cardiac output will increase by at least 50%.
b) Stroke volume will not be affected appreciably.
c) Cardiac output will not be affected appreciably.
d) Arterial pulse pressure will increase.
e) Central venous pressure will increase.
Answer - c
35. An 8-year-old normal girl (30 kg body weight) has a breathing frequency of 20 per Minute at rest and a tidal (breath) volume of 80 ml, her total ventilation is closest to:
a) 0.25 L/min.
b) 0.6 L/min.
c) 1.6 L/min.
d) 2.4 L/min.
e) 32 L/min
Answer - c
36. In a 60-year-old hypertensive person, the commonly observed increase in arterial pulse pressure is caused by:
a) Increased stroke volume
b) Increased myocardial contractility
c) Decreased mean circulatory pressure
d) Decreased arterial compliance
e) Increased heart rate
Answer - d
37. Hypoxia, such as occurs at high altitude:
a) Increases partial pressure of arterial blood CO2
b) decreases blood pH.
c) Decreases peripheral resistance
d) Increases the respiratory rate
e) Decreases blood pressure
Answer - d
38. Which of the following statements is correct?
a) An increase in pressure in the pulmonary artery may cause hypertrophy of the left ventricle.
b) Rupture of the myocardium is not life threatening as long as the pericardial sac remains intact.
c) Myocardial rupture would most likely occur sometime after two weeks following a myocardial infarction.
d) A disease, which increases blood pressure in the pulmonary artery, may lead to right ventricular failure.
e) None of the above statements is true.
Answer - d
39. Predominant emphysema:
a) Is typically characterized by a productive cough
b) Is a reversible disease of large and small airways?
c) Has a more severe course in people with high levels of antiproteases - (antielastase)
d) Is caused by pulmonary hypertension
e) None of the above is correct
Answer - c
40. Angiotensin converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitors:
a) Inhibit the conversion of angiotensin to renin.
b) Reduce the synthesis of angiotensin II and the subsequent release of aldosterone.
c) Inhibit the release of renin by the kidneys.
d) Inhibit the conversion of angiotensinogen to angiotensin I.
e) Increase blood pressure by their vasoconstrictor actions in renal arteries.
Answer - b
41. Bronchodilator drugs include all the following EXCEPT:
a) Salbutamol
b) Aminophylline
c) Isoprenaline
d) Propranolol
e) Adrenaline
Answer – d
42. A single cross-bridge cycle can move a thin filament:
a) Without the release of energy from ATP
b) About 2.5 mm (2.5 x 10-3m)
c) Along the entire length of an intact myosin molecule
d) About 10 nm (10 x 10-9m)
Answer - d
43. Survival of a fetus to birth at 40 weeks gestational age (term) is possible despite the absence of:
a) Cerebral hemispheres
b) An esophagus
c) Kidneys
d) A cardiovascular system
Answer - a
44. During the later stages of pregnancy, maternal blood pressure can fall if the woman lies on her back (supine hypotension). This is due to
a) A reduction in maternal venous return
b) A decrease in maternal heart rate because of the uterus pressing on the heart through the diaphragm
c) Compression of the vena cava
d) Increased fetal activity associated with discomfort due to compression of the fetus against the maternal vertebral column.
Answer - b
45. Active vitamin D:
a) Receptors are found in osteoblasts.
b) Facilitates bone formation.
c) Increases calcium ion transport across the intestinal brush border
d) Facilitates bone resorption.
Answer – e
46. Red blood cells measured 15 um in diameter
False
47. Red blood cells do not contain mitochondria
True
48. Red blood cells has a life span of 120 days in the circulation
True
49. Red blood cells are released from the bone marrow as mature erythrocytes
False
50. A red blood cell expresses HLA class II antigens on the cell surface
False
Psychology Multiple Choice Questions and Answers PDF Experienced Freshers
a) Competence
b) Responsibility
c) Integrity
d) Identity
e) Intimacy
Answer - d
2. Current research suggests that a sense of self-efficacy is most likely to be associated with
a) A high degree of social compliance
b) A low threshold for emotional arousal
c) A stable external attribution style
d) An external locus of control
e) An internal locus of control
Answer - e
3. This past year Donna was promoted from eighth to ninth grade and was assigned a new school locker with a new combination. Donna has found that she has trouble remembering her new combination because it is similar to her old one. The memory problem Donna is experiencing is most probably a result of
a) Sensory memory decay
b) Proactive interference
c) Retroactive interference
d) State-dependent memory
e) Encoding failure
Answer - b
4. The concept of functional fixedness refers to the fact that
a) Experts solve problems intuitively while beginners solve them by trial and error
b) Solutions to problems often occur suddenly after an incubation period
c) Individuals differ in their ability to visualize how objects will appear when rotated in space
d) Individuals often do not see unusual uses or applications for familiar objects
e) Learning under partial reinforcement is very resistant to extinction
Answer - d
5. Which of the following illustrates a variable ratio schedule of reinforcement?
a) Receiving five dollars weekly for completing household chores
b) Receiving a grade of A on every paper submitted in a course
c) Winning the lottery after playing many times
d) Receiving a dollar for each mile completed in a charity walkathon
e) Being given increased use of the family car after reaching age 18
Answer - c
6. During REM sleep, which of the following is most likely to occur?
a) Slowed respiration
b) Sleepwalking
c) Stable blood pressure
d) Decreased heart rate
e) Suppressed muscle tone
Answer - e
7. Visual negative afterimages are one result of
a) Sensory adaptation
b) Simultaneous contrast
c) Spatial summation
d) Brightness oversensitivity
e) Color intensity
Answer - a
8. Which part of the cerebral cortex receives information about temperature, pressure, touch, and pain?
a) Motor cortex
b) Prefrontal cortex
c) Temporal lobe
d) Occipital lobe
e) Parietal lobe
Answer - e
9. The region of the brain most involved in the experience of emotions is the
a) Cerebellum
b) Basal ganglia
c) Limbic system
d) Reticular activating system
e) Parasympathetic nervous system
Answer - c
10. In psychology, which of the following is most appropriate for identifying cause and effect?
a) Participant observation
b) Survey methodology
c) The case study
d) Experimentation
e) Co-relational techniques
Answer - d
11. In which of the following Piagetian stages are, propositional reasoning most likely to be used?
a) Secondary circular reactions
b) Preoperational
c) Formal operations
d) Concrete operations
e) Internalization of schemes
Answer - c
12. According to psychoanalytic theory, one of the important functions of the ego is to
a) Facilitate gratification of desires at an appropriate time
b) Govern behavior prior to the development of the superego and the id
c) Achieve immediate gratification of desires
d) Satisfy the demands of the superego
e) Act as the conscience of the individual
Answer - a
13. Which of the following best illustrates a humanistic approach to personality?
a) Establishing gender schema in the development of sex roles
b) Recognizing the importance of unconscious forces and biological instincts
c) Using functional analyses to specify external variables that regulate behavior
d) Emphasizing personal growth and achievement of individual potential
e) Exploring the childhood roots of behavior
Answer - d
14. The reliability of a test, is best indicated by which of the following?
a) The difficulty of the test for the intended population of test takers
b) The spread of scores on the test
c) The extent to which scores on the test correlate with a different measure of performance
d) The degree to which scores on the test form a normal distribution
e) The consistency of scores on repeated administrations of the test
Answer - e
15. Which of the following sets of numbers has the largest standard deviation?
a) –2, –1, 0, +1, +2
b) 1.00, 1.25, 1.50, 1.75, 2.00, 2.25, 2.50, 2.75, 3.00
c) 2, 6, 10, 14, 18
d) 5.756, 5.765, 5.890, 5.895, 5.923
e) 91, 92, 93, 94, 95
Answer - c
16. An individual, who experiences major distortions of reality, is most likely suffering from which of the following types of disorders.
a) Anxiety
b) Mood
c) Adjustment
d) Schizophrenic
e) Bipolar
Answer - d
17. A person with agoraphobia is best described as an individual who
a) Displays suicidal behavior in stressful situations
b) Shows little regard for social norms
c) Suffers from an irrational fear and avoidance of public places
d) Suffers from chronic fatigue and paranoia in social situations
e) Shows excessive mood swings without warning
Answer - c
18. Person-(client) centered the rapists are most likely to use which of the following modes of treatment?
a) Intra-psychic therapy
b) Unconditional positive regard
c) Drug therapy
d) Counter transference
e) Transactional analysis
Answer - b
19. With which of the following would a cognitively oriented therapist most likely be concerned?
a) The number of negative self-statements made by the patient
b) The temperament of the patient as a child
c) The number of individuals in the patient’s household
d) The physiological makeup of the patient
e) The responses made by the patient on a projective test
Answer - a
20. Social learning experiments on the modeling of aggressive behavior have demonstrated that
a) Children are not affected by watching violence on television
b) Abusive parenting accounts for most children’s aggressive acts
c) Children can develop aggressive behavior simply by watching others perform aggressive acts
d) Children’s aggressive behavior must be reinforced for it to be repeated
e) Children imitate aggressive behavior seen on television only if the media violence is performed by children
Answer - c
21. Ion channels in ventricular myocytes:
a) Are highly specialized phospholipids molecules.
b) Extend from one side of the cell to the other.
c) Let any substance pass through, so long as it is an ion.
d) Stay open for several seconds at a time.
e) Are generally controlled by the voltage across the membrane
Answer - e
22. A class of ion passes through an open channel:
a) When there is an electrochemical gradient for this ion across the membrane.
b) Because ion pumps transport the ion across the membrane
c) Because the selectivity filter conducts the ion through it.
d) Because other ions of the same class link up together, and drag the ion with it.
e) Because the voltage gates act as paddles, to sweep the ions through
Answer - a
23. A voltage-gated ion channel in a ventricular myocyte:
a) Usually has a single gate that opens and closes.
b) Sometimes, have two gates that open and close together.
c) Is always closed when the cell is resting
d) Selects the type of ion that passes across the membrane
e) Usually close when the membrane potential depolarizes.
Answer - d
24. Pulmonary surfactant:
a) Prevents large alveoli from emptying into smaller alveoli
b) Prevents forced expiratory efforts from emptying the alveoli.
c) Increases the filtration of fluid from pulmonary capillaries into the alveoli.
d) Prevents small alveoli from emptying into large alveoli
e) Keeps the lungs and thoracic wall together
Answer - d
25. Concerning the flow rate of air into or out of the lungs:
a) The greater the effort of inspiration, the greater the flow rate
b) The greater the effort of expiration, the greater the flow rate, particularly at low lung volumes.
c) Expired air flows fastest at lung volumes near residual volume.
d) The greatest overall resistance to airflow occurs at the level of the narrowest bronchioles.
e) Radial traction increases the resistance to airflow during inspiration.
Answer - a
26. Compliance:
a) Has the units of cm water pressure per ml of air
b) Is the change in volume for a given change in pressure?
c) Has the units of cm water pressure per ml of air per minute
d) Of the human lung can only be measured when the lung has been removed from the body.
e) Is decreased by an increased airways resistance
Answer - b
27. The increase in tidal volume during dynamic exercise:
a) Increases the expiratory reserve and inspiratory reserve volumes
b) Increases linearly with work rate, up to about 5 L
c) Is caused by recruitment of motor units in the muscles of breathing
d) Is 10 times the resting tidal volume
e) Is 10 times the vital capacity
Answer - c
28. During physical exercise:
a) Parasympathetic stimulation increases blood flow to active skeletal muscle.
b) Vasodilatation occurs in all organs.
c) Sympathetic stimulation vasoconstricts the coronary circulation
d) Sympathetic nerve fibers supplying the viscera are inhibited.
e) The duration of ventricular diastole is shortened considerably, compared to the duration of systole.
Answer - e
29. During an endurance event:
a) Heart rate could increase by 200 beats per minute.
b) Stroke volume could increase by about 100 ml.
c) Cardiac output would increase only when the air temperature increased.
d) It takes several minutes from the start of the event, for the heart rate to increase.
e) Total peripheral resistance decreases.
Answer - e
30. The blood flow through active skeletal muscle:
a) Is phasic
b) Increases primarily due to sympathetic vasodilatation in skeletal muscle blood vessels
c) Increases only because mean arterial pressure increases.
d) Increases during contraction, and decreases during relaxation
e) Occurs at the same rate as blood flow through resting muscle
Answer - a
31. Which of the following values obtained during dynamic exercise could be considered abnormal?
a) A heart rate of 150 BPM
b) A cardiac output of 20 L/min
c) A stroke volume of 100 ml
d) A diastolic arterial blood pressure of 80 mmHg
e) A systolic blood pressure of 80 mmHg
Answer – e
32. In a physically trained person:
a) Heart rate can reach higher levels than in an untrained person exercising at an equivalent workload.
b) Stroke volume is greater than in an untrained person.
c) Vagal tone is lower than in an untrained person.
d) Vascular resistance is lower than in an untrained person.
e) Left ventricular end-diastolic volume is less than in an untrained person.
Answer - b
33. In a typical capillary the:
a) Pressure at the venous end exceeds that at the arterial end.
b) Radius exceeds that of a typical arteriole.
c) Tension in the wall increases as the hydrostatic pressure rises.
d) Radius is more than three times as great as the radius of a red blood cell.
e) Tension in the wall is proportional to the fourth power of the radius.
Answer - c
34. If the heart of a resting normal person is increased from 60 to 90 beats per minute by artificial atrial pacing:
a) Cardiac output will increase by at least 50%.
b) Stroke volume will not be affected appreciably.
c) Cardiac output will not be affected appreciably.
d) Arterial pulse pressure will increase.
e) Central venous pressure will increase.
Answer - c
35. An 8-year-old normal girl (30 kg body weight) has a breathing frequency of 20 per Minute at rest and a tidal (breath) volume of 80 ml, her total ventilation is closest to:
a) 0.25 L/min.
b) 0.6 L/min.
c) 1.6 L/min.
d) 2.4 L/min.
e) 32 L/min
Answer - c
36. In a 60-year-old hypertensive person, the commonly observed increase in arterial pulse pressure is caused by:
a) Increased stroke volume
b) Increased myocardial contractility
c) Decreased mean circulatory pressure
d) Decreased arterial compliance
e) Increased heart rate
Answer - d
37. Hypoxia, such as occurs at high altitude:
a) Increases partial pressure of arterial blood CO2
b) decreases blood pH.
c) Decreases peripheral resistance
d) Increases the respiratory rate
e) Decreases blood pressure
Answer - d
38. Which of the following statements is correct?
a) An increase in pressure in the pulmonary artery may cause hypertrophy of the left ventricle.
b) Rupture of the myocardium is not life threatening as long as the pericardial sac remains intact.
c) Myocardial rupture would most likely occur sometime after two weeks following a myocardial infarction.
d) A disease, which increases blood pressure in the pulmonary artery, may lead to right ventricular failure.
e) None of the above statements is true.
Answer - d
39. Predominant emphysema:
a) Is typically characterized by a productive cough
b) Is a reversible disease of large and small airways?
c) Has a more severe course in people with high levels of antiproteases - (antielastase)
d) Is caused by pulmonary hypertension
e) None of the above is correct
Answer - c
40. Angiotensin converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitors:
a) Inhibit the conversion of angiotensin to renin.
b) Reduce the synthesis of angiotensin II and the subsequent release of aldosterone.
c) Inhibit the release of renin by the kidneys.
d) Inhibit the conversion of angiotensinogen to angiotensin I.
e) Increase blood pressure by their vasoconstrictor actions in renal arteries.
Answer - b
41. Bronchodilator drugs include all the following EXCEPT:
a) Salbutamol
b) Aminophylline
c) Isoprenaline
d) Propranolol
e) Adrenaline
Answer – d
42. A single cross-bridge cycle can move a thin filament:
a) Without the release of energy from ATP
b) About 2.5 mm (2.5 x 10-3m)
c) Along the entire length of an intact myosin molecule
d) About 10 nm (10 x 10-9m)
Answer - d
43. Survival of a fetus to birth at 40 weeks gestational age (term) is possible despite the absence of:
a) Cerebral hemispheres
b) An esophagus
c) Kidneys
d) A cardiovascular system
Answer - a
44. During the later stages of pregnancy, maternal blood pressure can fall if the woman lies on her back (supine hypotension). This is due to
a) A reduction in maternal venous return
b) A decrease in maternal heart rate because of the uterus pressing on the heart through the diaphragm
c) Compression of the vena cava
d) Increased fetal activity associated with discomfort due to compression of the fetus against the maternal vertebral column.
Answer - b
45. Active vitamin D:
a) Receptors are found in osteoblasts.
b) Facilitates bone formation.
c) Increases calcium ion transport across the intestinal brush border
d) Facilitates bone resorption.
Answer – e
46. Red blood cells measured 15 um in diameter
False
47. Red blood cells do not contain mitochondria
True
48. Red blood cells has a life span of 120 days in the circulation
True
49. Red blood cells are released from the bone marrow as mature erythrocytes
False
50. A red blood cell expresses HLA class II antigens on the cell surface
False
0 comments:
Post a Comment